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NEXUS / 2026 / GS1
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Project Alexandria • Universal Library

UPSC 2026 GS Paper 1

Artifacts 51 through 60

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
51

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

  1. Esprit de corps
  2. Equity
  3. Accountability
  4. Delegation

Official Answer: (c) Accountability

Mapped Realm: ETHICS INTEGRITY APTITUDE ├─ REALM 51: Accountability

Topic to Read: Public Service Values, Ownership of Outcomes, and Whistleblowing in Administration.

Concept Breakdown: Mr. X faces intense pressure from vested interests to look the other way, but he halts the contract and reports it to the vigilance authority. He is taking absolute ownership of his duty to protect the public. This is the very definition of Accountability—being answerable for the outcomes of your area of responsibility and taking decisive action to correct systemic failures, regardless of external pressures.
52

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet... As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation... Consider the following statements:

  1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
  2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
  3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform... to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
  4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides...

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Official Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Mapped Realm: ETHICS INTEGRITY APTITUDE ├─ REALM 376: Stakeholder Mapping

Topic to Read: Conflict Resolution, Tribal Rights vs Urban Development, and Inclusive Governance.

Concept Breakdown: In public administration, you cannot bulldoze over a marginalized community's sacred land simply for the sake of utility; doing so ignores justice and breeds severe conflict (invalidating statement 2). A true resolution requires empathy first (acknowledging cultural concerns - statement 1), establishing open communication channels (a multi-stakeholder dialogue - statement 3), and relying on objective data to find a balanced, evidence-based solution (an independent ESIA - statement 4).
53

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department... During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project... What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

  1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
  2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
  3. Propose a limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below :

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (b) 3 only

Mapped Realm: ETHICS INTEGRITY APTITUDE ├─ REALM 175: Transparency

Topic to Read: Whistleblowing mechanics, Due Process vs Transparency, and handling unverified allegations.

Concept Breakdown: The Head of Dept wants to sweep it under the rug. Ms. X correctly desires transparency. However, if she immediately goes public with unproven allegations (statement 1), she breaches protocol and invites defamation suits. Removing the contractor instantly based on rumors (statement 2) violates the contractor's right to due process. The ethical "golden mean" is a "limited disclosure" to a formal oversight committee (statement 3). This ensures the allegations are investigated by the proper authorities without jeopardizing the project through premature public panic.
54

'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

  1. 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
  2. The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
  3. The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
  4. The view of only 'Y' is correct.

Official Answer: (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.

Mapped Realm: INDIAN POLITY ├─ REALM 21: Amendability & Interpretation

Topic to Read: Definition of State and Law under Part III (Fundamental Rights), Article 13(3).

Concept Breakdown: Article 13(3) of the Constitution explicitly states that "law" includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Because X was not convinced that custom was included, X's interpretation is fundamentally flawed. Y is entirely correct to include custom and usage within the definition of law under Article 13. Therefore, only Y's view is correct.
55

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

  1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
  2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
  3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  1. All three statements are correct.
  2. There is no correct statement.
  3. There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
  4. There is only one correct statement.

Official Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.

Mapped Realm: INDIAN POLITY ├─ REALM 05: Salient Features

Topic to Read: Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals (Articles 393, 394, 395).

Concept Breakdown: The final articles of the Constitution handle these exact housekeeping details. Article 393 explicitly states: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." Article 394 explicitly names January 26, 1950, as the date of commencement for the bulk of the Constitution. Finally, Article 395 explicitly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935. Therefore, all three statements claiming these articles do not exist are completely false.
56

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

  1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
  2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
  3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1 only

Official Answer: (b) 2 only

Mapped Realm: SOCIAL JUSTICE ├─ REALM 25: Disability Welfare

Topic to Read: Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016, Accessible India Campaign, and NDFDC nodal ministries.

Concept Breakdown: The landmark Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016, not 2018 (making statement 1 factually incorrect regarding the year). The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) is indeed a nationwide flagship campaign targeting exactly three pillars of accessibility: built environments, transportation, and ICT ecosystems (statement 2 is true). The NDFDC was set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, completely separate from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (invalidating statement 3).
57

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

  1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
  3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  1. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
  2. There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
  3. There is only one correct statement.
  4. All three statements are correct.

Official Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

Mapped Realm: INDIAN POLITY ├─ REALM 78: Scheduled & Tribal Areas

Topic to Read: 5th vs 6th Schedule Distinctions, Section 10(26) IT Act, and Article 243D.

Concept Breakdown: The tribal areas in the four North-Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (AMTM) are specifically governed by the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth (which covers scheduled areas in the rest of India). Thus, statement 1 is false. Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specific areas (like the 6th Schedule areas) are indeed exempt from paying income tax on income generated within those areas (statement 2 is true). Article 243D of the Constitution explicitly mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats for SCs and STs, and specifies that one-third of those reserved seats must be allotted to women belonging to those groups (statement 3 is true). Therefore, two statements are correct, including statement 2.
58

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

  1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
  2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
  3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  1. All the three statements are correct.
  2. There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
  3. There is only one correct statement.
  4. There is no correct statement.

Official Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Mapped Realm: INDIAN POLITY ├─ REALM 135: Parliamentary Proceedings

Topic to Read: Question Hour mechanics, Starred vs Unstarred Questions, and Supplementary rules.

Concept Breakdown: Statements 1 and 2 have their definitions entirely swapped. A Starred question is distinguished by an asterisk because the member desires an immediate oral answer on the floor of the House. An Unstarred question requires a detailed written answer laid on the table. Because an unstarred question is answered in writing, it is impossible for members to ask spontaneous follow-up (supplementary) questions on the spot. Therefore, only statement 3 is true.
59

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

  1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
  3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
  4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  1. There are four correct statements.
  2. There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
  3. There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
  4. There is no correct statement.

Official Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.

Mapped Realm: INDIAN POLITY ├─ REALM 143: Parliamentary Committees

Topic to Read: Composition, Chairman Appointment, and Tenure of Standing Committees.

Concept Breakdown: Every single statement contains a deliberate error. 1) The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2) The committee consists of 30 members, but the ratio is reversed: 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. 3) A core rule of Parliamentary Standing Committees is that no Minister is eligible to be a member, with absolutely no exceptions for the Minister of Social Justice. 4) The term of office for the members is exactly one year, not two years. Thus, zero statements are correct.
60

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

  1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
  2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.
  3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Official Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Mapped Realm: INTERNAL SECURITY ├─ REALM 149: National Security Architecture

Topic to Read: Multi-layered Air Defense Grids, Ballistic Missile Defense (BMD) Phase II, and futuristic nationwide defense shields.

Concept Breakdown: Named after the mythical spinning disc weapon of Lord Vishnu, Mission Sudarshan Chakra is India's highly ambitious, futuristic, integrated air defense grid. It seeks to weave together various indigenous and imported interceptor systems (like the S-400, MRSAM, and BMD interceptors) to create a seamless, impenetrable canopy protecting the entire nation's airspace from ballistic missiles and aerial threats by 2035, massively elevating India's strategic autonomy and offensive capabilities. All three statements correctly define the scope of this mega-project.