ASKiIMAN™
NEXUS / 2025 / GS1
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Q81. [ GS1 GEO / REALM 41: Rare Earth Elements ]

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

  • (a) Both Statement I and II are correct and II explains I
  • (b) Both Statement I and II are correct but II does not explain I
  • (c) Statement I is correct but II is not correct
  • (d) Statement I is not correct but II is correct
Yttrium / Europium / Terbium Phosphorescence (II) -> Screens (I)

ANSWER: A

The Material Science: Rare Earth Elements (REEs) like Yttrium, Europium, and Terbium are heavily used in modern flat-screen TVs and monitors (Statement I). The scientific reason for this specific application is their unique luminescent and phosphorescent properties—meaning they absorb energy and emit brilliant, stable red, green, and blue light (Statement II). Therefore, their phosphorescence (II) directly explains why they are used in screen manufacturing (I).

Q82. [ GS3 ECONOMY / REALM 94: Overhaul of Indian Railways ]

Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028.
II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?

  • (a) I and II only
  • (b) II and III only
  • (c) I and III only
  • (d) I, II and III
RFID (III is True) KAVACH Target: 2030 (Not 2028) Made in Germany? 100% INDIGENOUS!

ANSWER: A

Watch the "NOT": The question asks which statements are incorrect. Statement I is false because the National Rail Plan (NRP) targets a 'future ready' system by 2030, not 2028. Statement II is false because 'Kavach' is a highly celebrated, 100% indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system developed by India's RDSO, not with Germany. Statement III is true; Kavach uses Ultra High Frequency RFID tags placed on the tracks (especially in station sections) to communicate train position to the onboard system.

Q83. [ GS3 S&T / REALM 380: Int. Space Collaborations ]

Consider the following space missions:
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None
ISS

Ax-4

Microgravity (Yes)

Gaganyaan

Microgravity (Yes)

SpaDeX

Docking Tech (No)

ANSWER: B

The Mission Profiles: Axiom-4 (Ax-4) is a commercial mission to the ISS (which carries an Indian astronaut, Shubhanshu Shukla) explicitly packed with microgravity research experiments. Gaganyaan is India's human spaceflight program, designed with an orbital module where astronauts will conduct microgravity experiments in Low Earth Orbit. SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is purely a technology demonstration mission by ISRO to prove two spacecraft can autonomously dock in orbit; it is not a microgravity research platform. Thus, only two match the criteria.

Q84. [ GS3 S&T / REALM 435: Submarines & Aircraft ]

With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:
Aircraft type : Description
I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None

Dornier

Maritime Patrol (Yes)

IL-76

Heavy Transport (Not Combat)

C-17

Military Transport (Yes)

ANSWER: B

The Fleet Roster: (I) The Dornier-228 is a twin-turboprop aircraft heavily utilized by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime patrol and surveillance. (III) The Boeing C-17 Globemaster III is a massive military transport aircraft used by the IAF for heavy lifting. (II) The Ilyushin Il-76 (Gajraj) is entirely mismatched; it is a heavy military transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat fighter. Thus, exactly two pairs are correct.

Q85. [ GS3 ENV / REALM 154: Air Pollution Control ]

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:

  • (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
  • (b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
  • (c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
  • (d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride
AgI + KI Silver Iodide + Potassium Iodide

ANSWER: A

The Meteorological Chemistry: Cloud seeding involves dispersing specific chemicals into the air that serve as cloud condensation or ice nuclei, altering the microphysical processes within the cloud. The most universally used chemicals for this are Silver Iodide (AgI) and Potassium Iodide (KI), along with dry ice (solid carbon dioxide). They share a crystalline structure very similar to natural ice, making them perfect seeds for water vapor to condense upon.

Q86. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 109: Pardoning Power ]

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II
Art 72 Bound by CoM (II False) SC Review (I True) (Epuru Sudhakar Case)

ANSWER: A

The Limits of Clemency: Statement I is correct. In the landmark Epuru Sudhakar vs Govt of AP (2006) case, the Supreme Court ruled that the pardoning power of the President (and Governor) is subject to limited judicial review if the decision is arbitrary, irrational, or malafide. Statement II is false. Under Article 74, the President is strictly bound to exercise his functions (including pardoning under Article 72) on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (Central Government).

Q87. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 134: Officers of Parliament ]

Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House after dissolution.
II. A Member elected as Speaker shall resign from his political party immediately.
III. The Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then Members, provided 14 days' notice is given.

  • (a) I and II only
  • (b) II and III only
  • (c) I and III only
  • (d) I, II and III
Stays till next House (I) Removal = Effective Maj + 14d (III) Does NOT resign from party (UK convention, not India) - II is False

ANSWER: C

Parliamentary Procedure: Statement I is true (Article 94 requires the Speaker to hold office until right before the newly elected Lok Sabha meets, ensuring a continuous head). Statement III is true (Article 94(c) dictates removal by a resolution passed by a majority of "all the then members"—an effective majority—with a mandatory 14 days' notice). Statement II is fundamentally FALSE. While in the UK, the Speaker officially resigns from their political party ("Once a Speaker, always a Speaker"), the Indian Constitution contains no such provision, and Indian Speakers rarely sever formal party ties.

Q88. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 252: Tenth Schedule ]

Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the Lok Sabha has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II
10th Sched. President decides? (False) SPEAKER decides! "Political Party" Not in Const? (False) Added by 52nd CAA (1985)

ANSWER: D

The Tenth Schedule Mechanics: Both statements are completely false. Under the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the authority to decide questions of disqualification rests exclusively with the presiding officer of the House (the Speaker or Chairman), not the President (Statement I is false). Regarding Statement II: Before 1985, the Constitution did not mention political parties. However, the 52nd Amendment Act (1985) inserted the 10th Schedule, which explicitly uses the term "political party" dozens of times to define defection.

Q89. [ GS1 GEO / REALM 127: Mining Governance ]

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

  • (a) Both correct, II explains I
  • (b) Both correct, II does not explain I
  • (c) Statement I is correct but II is not correct
  • (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Centre (MMDR Act) Notifies (St. II) Centre declares WHAT is minor State Govts Frames Rules State grants leases/concessions "No Power" is FALSE (St. I)

ANSWER: D

The Federal Mining Law: Under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments possess the exclusive and explicit power to frame rules regarding the grant of concessions, leases, and royalties for "minor minerals" (like sand, clay, building stone) (Statement I is totally false). However, the power to define/notify *what* constitutes a "minor mineral" lies strictly with the Central Government under Section 3(e) of the same Act (Statement II is true).

Q90. [ GS3 ENV / REALM 199: Global Env Governance ]

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

  • (a) The European Union
  • (b) The World Bank
  • (c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
  • (d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
European Union

ANSWER: A

Current Affairs Fact: In June 2024, after intense debate and farmer protests, the European Union formally enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL). It is a globally unprecedented, legally binding regulation requiring member states to implement restoration measures covering at least 20% of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030, and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.