ASKiIMAN™
NEXUS / 2025 / GS1
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Q51. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 108: Ordinance-Making Power ]

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

  • (a) I and II only
  • (b) II and III only
  • (c) I and III only
  • (d) I, II and III
Ordinance (Art 123) Amends Acts (I) Retrospective (III) FRs Cannot Abridge (II is False)

ANSWER: C

The Constitutional Bounds: Under Article 123, an Ordinance issued by the President has the exact same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it can amend or repeal any existing Act (Statement I) and can be enacted with retrospective effect (Statement III). However, Article 13 mandates that "the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the Fundamental Rights." Since an Ordinance is a "law", it absolutely cannot abridge Fundamental Rights (Statement II is false).

Q52. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 75: Formation of New States ]

Consider the following pairs:
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a UT with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None
Arunachal Ita Fort + 2 Parks Nagaland 13th CAA (1962) Tripura Part C -> UT -> State

ANSWER: C

The Geographic-Legal History: (I) Arunachal Pradesh's capital is Itanagar (named after Ita Fort) and it famously hosts exactly two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. (II) Nagaland's statehood was fundamentally established via the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962 (which inserted Article 371A guaranteeing special protections) alongside the State of Nagaland Act. (III) Tripura was a Part C state in 1950, became a UT under the 1956 reorganization, and attained full statehood in 1972. All three pairs are flawlessly matched.

Q53. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 89: Inter-State Relations ]

With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None
ISC Art 263 Constitutional Zonal C. Statutory (Act) NSC Executive

ANSWER: A

The Legal Pedigree: Only the Inter-State Council (I) is a constitutional body, explicitly provided for under Article 263 of the Constitution. The Zonal Councils (III) are statutory bodies created by an Act of Parliament (States Reorganisation Act of 1956). The National Security Council (II) is purely an executive body created by a government resolution. Therefore, exactly one is established as per the provisions of the Constitution.

Q54. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 203: Governor's Discretion ]

Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II
State Leg. Governor Art 163 (Discretion) President Cannot bypass Governor (II False)

ANSWER: A

The Federal Process: Statement I is correct. Unlike the President, Article 163 explicitly mentions that the Governor acts in his discretion in certain matters (where he is not bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers). Statement II is false. Under Article 200, the mechanism to reserve a state bill for the President is exclusively via the Governor. The President has no constitutional power to unilaterally summon or reserve a state bill without the Governor acting first as the conduit.

Q55. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 32-59: FR, DPSP, FD ]

Consider the following pairs:
I. Separation of Judiciary from Executive : DPSP
II. Valuing and preserving rich heritage : Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below 14 in factories : Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None
DPSP Art 50 Sep. Judiciary F. Duties Art 51A(f) Heritage F. Rights Art 24 No Child Labor

ANSWER: C

The Constitutional Index: Article 50 (Separation of judiciary from the executive) falls exactly under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy). Article 51A(f) (Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture) is under Part IVA (Fundamental Duties). Article 24 (Prohibition of employment of children in factories) is a core right under Part III (Fundamental Rights). All three are perfectly matched to their structural chapters.

Q56. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 78: Scheduled Areas ]

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:
I. the State Govt loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Govt can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances.

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II
State Executive Power Sch. Area (V) State STILL has power (I is False) Union only gives directions (II is False)

ANSWER: D

The Administrative Reality: Under the Fifth Schedule, the executive power of the State strictly *extends* to Scheduled Areas therein, subject only to the Governor modifying specific laws. The State absolutely does not lose its power to a local body (Statement I is false). The Union Government's executive power extends to giving *directions* to the State regarding the administration of these areas, but the Union does not "take over the total administration" of these areas (Statement II is false).

Q57. [ GS2 GOV / REALM 169: Ministries ]

Consider the following pairs:
I. National Automotive Board : Min of Commerce and Industry
II. Coir Board : Min of Heavy Industries
III. National Centre for Trade Information : Min of MSME
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) All the three
  • (d) None
1. Auto Board 2. Coir Board 3. Trade Info A. Commerce B. Heavy Ind. C. MSME Every single one is swapped. None match straight.

ANSWER: D

The Mix-and-Match Trap: The examiner deliberately swapped the parent ministries. The National Automotive Board works under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. The Coir Board works under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. None of the pairs as presented in the question are correctly matched.

Q58. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 60: Constitutional Amendment ]

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the following, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required?
I. List I-Union List (7th Schedule)
II. Extent of executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office

  • (a) I and II only
  • (b) II and III only
  • (c) I and III only
  • (d) I, II and III
7th Sched (I) Exec Power (II) > 50% Gov. Office (III) Special Maj Only

ANSWER: A

Article 368 Limits: Provisions that disrupt the federal balance require ratification by half the states. This includes any lists in the 7th Schedule (I) and the extent of executive power of the Union and States (II). However, the "conditions of the Governor's office" (under Article 158) is not entrenched in the federal ratification list of Article 368. It can be amended by Parliament alone via a special majority.

Q59. [ GS2 POLITY / REALM 201: Immunities ]

Consider the following statements:
I. The Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

  • (a) I and II only
  • (b) II and III only
  • (c) I and III only
  • (d) I, II and III
Governor Art 361 (I & II) MLA Speech Art 194(2) (III) Courts

ANSWER: D

Constitutional Shields: Article 361 provides absolute immunity to the President and Governors from being answerable to any court for their official duties (I is true), and strictly bans any criminal proceedings against them during their term of office (II is true). Similarly, Article 194(2) explicitly grants MLAs absolute immunity from court proceedings for anything said or any vote given inside the State Legislature (III is true).

Q60. [ GS2 GOV / REALM 127: Regulatory Governance ]

Consider the following activities:
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) Only three
  • (d) All the four
Prod (I & IV) DGH, not PNGRB Refining (II) Sale (III) PNGRB Regulated!

ANSWER: B

The Jurisdiction Boundary: The PNGRB Act, 2006 explicitly states that the Board regulates refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing, and sale of petroleum products (II and III). However, the Act expressly excludes the "production of crude oil and natural gas" (I and IV) from PNGRB's mandate. Upstream production and exploration are overseen by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH). Exactly two are correct.